Get CS0-002 Braindumps & CS0-002 Real Exam Questions

CompTIA CS0-002 Actual Questions and Braindumps

CompTIA CS0-002: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification is an essential certification for cybersecurity professionals who want to advance their careers. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification validates the knowledge and skills of cybersecurity analysts, and it is recognized globally. By passing the exam, candidates can demonstrate their expertise in identifying and mitigating security threats, which is essential in today's digital age.

 

NEW QUESTION # 139
Which of the following are the most likely reasons to include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach? (Select two).

• A. To limit reputation damage caused by the breach
• B. To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting
• C. To remediate vulnerabilities that led to the breach
• D. To provide secure network design changes
• E. To use the SLA to determine when to deliver the report
• F. To isolate potential insider threats

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition1, reporting is an essential part of the incident response process. It helps communicate the details and impact of the incident to various stakeholders, such as management, customers, regulators, law enforcement, and the public. Reporting also provides valuable feedback and lessons learned that can improve the security posture and readiness of the organization.
Based on this information, the most likely reasons to include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach are:
B) To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting: Many industries and jurisdictions have laws and regulations that mandate reporting of security breaches within a certain time frame. Failing to comply with these requirements can result in fines, penalties, lawsuits, and loss of trust. Therefore, it is important to have a clear and consistent reporting process that ensures timely and accurate disclosure of the breach to the relevant authorities.
C) To limit reputation damage caused by the breach: A security breach can have a negative impact on the reputation and credibility of the organization. Customers, partners, investors, and the public may lose confidence in the organization's ability to protect their data and interests. Therefore, it is important to have a transparent and honest reporting process that informs the affected parties about the nature, scope, and consequences of the breach, as well as the actions taken to mitigate and prevent future incidents. This can help restore trust and goodwill among the stakeholders.

NEW QUESTION # 140
Which of the following is the best method to review and assess the security of the cloud service models used by a company on multiple CSPs?

• A. Deploying cloud instances using Nikto and OpenVAS
• B. Integrating the security benchmarks of the CSPs with a CASB
• C. Unifying and migrating all services in a single CSP
• D. Executing an API hardening process on the CSPs' endpoints

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is the best method to review and assess the security of the cloud service models used by a company on multiple CSPs. CSP stands for cloud service provider, which is a company that offers cloud-based services such as infrastructure, platform, or software. CASB stands for cloud access security broker, which is a software or service that acts as a gateway between the company and the CSPs, and provides visibility, control, compliance, and threat protection for the cloud services.
Integrating the security benchmarks of the CSPs with a CASB means that the company can use a common set of standards and metrics to measure and compare the security posture and performance of different cloud service models, such as IaaS, PaaS, or SaaS. Security benchmarks are predefined criteria or best practices that define the minimum level of security required for a cloud service model. For example, some security benchmarks may include encryption, authentication, logging, auditing, patching, backup, etc. By integrating these benchmarks with a CASB, the company can monitor and enforce them across multiple CSPs, and identify any gaps or risks in their cloud security.

NEW QUESTION # 141
SIMULATION
Malware is suspected on a server in the environment.
The analyst is provided with the output of commands from servers in the environment and needs to review all output files in order to determine which process running on one of the servers may be malware.
INSTRUCTIONS
Servers 1, 2, and 4 are clickable. Select the Server and the process that host the malware.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer:

Explanation:
Server 4, svchost.exe

NEW QUESTION # 142
A development team recently released a new version of a public-facing website for testing prior to production. The development team is soliciting the help of various teams to validate the functionality of the website due to its high visibility. Which of the following activities best describes the process the development team is initiating?

• A. User acceptance testing
• B. Code review
• C. Static analysis
• D. Stress testing

Answer: A

Explanation:
User acceptance testing is a process of verifying that a software application meets the requirements and expectations of the end users before it is released to production. User acceptance testing can help to validate the functionality, usability, performance and compatibility of the software application with real-world scenarios and feedback . User acceptance testing can involve various teams, such as developers, testers, customers and stakeholders.

NEW QUESTION # 143
A small electronics company decides to use a contractor to assist with the development of a new FPGA-based device. Several of the development phases will occur off-site at the contractor's labs.
Which of the following is the main concern a security analyst should have with this arrangement?

• A. FPGA applications are easily cloned, increasing the possibility of intellectual property theft.
• B. Development phases occurring at multiple sites may produce change management issues.
• C. Moving the FPGAs between development sites will lessen the time that is available for security testing.
• D. Making multiple trips between development sites increases the chance of physical damage to the FPGAs.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.eetimes.com/how-to-protect-intellectual-property-in-fpgas-devices-part-1/#

NEW QUESTION # 144
A company's IDP/DLP solution triggered the following alerts:

Which of the following alerts should a security analyst investigate FIRST?

• A. D
• B. E
• C. C
• D. A
• E. B

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 145
A security analyst reviews the following aggregated output from an Nmap scan and the border firewall ACL:

Which of the following should the analyst reconfigure to BEST reduce organizational risk while maintaining current functionality?

• A. Server1
• B. PC2
• C. Firewall
• D. PC1
• E. Server2

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 146
A cybersecurity analyst is contributing to a team hunt on an organization's endpoints.
Which of the following should the analyst do FIRST?

• A. Profile the threat actors and activities.
• B. Establish a hypothesis.
• C. Write detection logic.
• D. Perform a process analysis.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.cybereason.com/blog/blog-the-eight-steps-to-threat-hunting

NEW QUESTION # 147
A SIEM alert occurs with the following output:

Which of the following BEST describes this alert?

• A. The alert is a false positive; there is a device with dual NICs
• B. The alert is valid because IP spoofing may be occurring on the network
• C. The alert is valid because there may be a rogue device on the network
• D. The alert is a false positive; both NICs are of the same brand

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 148
An analyst receives an alert from the continuous-monitoring solution about unauthorized changes to the firmware versions on several field devices. The asset owners confirm that no firmware version updates were performed by authorized technicians, and customers have not reported any performance issues or outages. Which Of the following actions would be BEST for the analyst to recommend to the asset owners to secure the devices from further exploitation?

• A. Implement BIOS passwords.
• B. Change the passwords on the devices.
• C. Report the findings to the threat intel community.
• D. Remove the assets from the production network for analysis.

Answer: D

Explanation:
If were referring to other devices, yes - Implement BIOS passwords before they are compromised. But the ones that were already compromised, they need to be removed from the system to avoid further exploitation. Plus, if you put a password on there, the attacker may now have your password.

NEW QUESTION # 149
An analyst needs to provide recommendations for the AUP Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to protect the company's intellectual property?

• A. Company assets must not be utilized for personal use or gain.
• B. AII Internet access must be via a proxy server.
• C. Company assets must be stored in a locked cabinet when not in use.
• D. Company assets should never leave the company's property.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 150
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a large financial institution is seeking a solution that will block a predetermined set of data points from being transferred or downloaded by employees. The CISO also wants to track the data assets by name, type, content, or data profile.
Which of the following BEST describes what the CIS wants to purchase?

• A. SIEM
• B. File integrity monitor
• C. Asset tagging
• D. DLP

Answer: D

Explanation:
DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is what the CISO wants to purchase. DLP is a solution that prevents unauthorized or accidental disclosure of sensitive data by monitoring, detecting, and blocking data transfers or downloads that violate predefined policies or rules3. DLP can also track and classify data assets based on various criteria, such as name, type, content, or data profile4. DLP can help protect data from insider threats, external attackers, or human errors.

NEW QUESTION # 151
During a routine security review, anomalous traffic from 9.9.9.9 was observed accessing a web server in the corporate perimeter network. The server is mission critical and must remain accessible around the world to serve web content. The Chief Information Security Officer has directed that improper traffic must be restricted. The following output is from the web server:

Which of the following is the best method to accomplish this task?

• A. Adjusting the firewall
• B. Adding 9.9.9.9 to the blocklist
• C. Implementing port security
• D. Adjusting the IDS to block anomalous activity

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the output of the "netstat -an" command, it seems that the web server is listening on port 80 for HTTP traffic and port 443 for HTTPS traffic. The anomalous traffic from 9.9.9.9 is accessing the web server on port 443, which means it is using a secure connection.
The best method to accomplish the task of restricting improper traffic from 9.9.9.9 is D. Adjusting the firewall. A firewall is a device or software that controls the flow of network traffic based on predefined rules. By adjusting the firewall rules, you can block or allow specific IP addresses, ports, protocols, or domains from accessing your web server.

NEW QUESTION # 152
A security analyst was alerted to a tile integrity monitoring event based on a change to the vhost- paymonts.conf file.
The output of the diff command against the known-good backup reads as follows

Which of the following MOST likely occurred?

• A. The file was altered to verify the card numbers are valid.
• B. The file was altered to accept payments without charging the cards
• C. The file was altered to harvest credit card numbers
• D. The file was altered to avoid logging credit card information

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 153
A security analyst is handling an incident in which ransomware has encrypted the disks of several company workstations. Which of the following would work BEST to prevent this type of Incident in the future?

• A. Back up the workstations to facilitate recovery and create a gold Image.
• B. Virtualize all the endpoints with dairy snapshots of the virtual machines.
• C. Implement a UTM instead of a stateful firewall and enable gateway antivirus.
• D. Establish a ransomware awareness program and implement secure and verifiable backups.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 154
Which of the following BEST explains the function of a managerial control?

• A. To ensure tactical design, selection of technology to protect data, logical access reviews, and the implementation of audit trails
• B. To help design and implement the security planning, program development, and maintenance of the security life cycle
• C. To guide the development of training, education, security awareness programs, and system maintenance
• D. To create data classification, risk assessments, security control reviews, and contingency planning

Answer: B

Explanation:
A managerial control is a function of management that involves setting performance standards, measuring performance, and taking corrective actions when necessary. A managerial control helps to regulate the organizational activities and ensure that they are aligned with the organizational goals and objectives1. One of the functions of a managerial control is to help design and implement the security planning, program development, and maintenance of the security life cycle. The security life cycle is a process that defines the phases of security activities from initiation to disposal2. A managerial control can help to establish the security policies, procedures, roles, and responsibilities for each phase of the security life cycle. A managerial control can also help to monitor and evaluate the security performance and effectiveness of each phase and take corrective actions if needed.

NEW QUESTION # 155
A security analyst performs various types of vulnerability scans. Review the vulnerability scan results to determine the type of scan that was executed and if a false positive occurred for each device.
Instructions:
Select the Results Generated drop-down option to determine if the results were generated from a credentialed scan, non-credentialed scan, or a compliance scan.
For ONLY the credentialed and non-credentialed scans, evaluate the results for false positives and check the findings that display false positives. NOTE: If you would like to uncheck an option that is currently selected, click on the option a second time.
Lastly, based on the vulnerability scan results, identify the type of Server by dragging the Server to the results.
The Linux Web Server, File-Print Server and Directory Server are draggable.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

Answer:

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 156
For machine learning to be applied effectively toward security analysis automation, it requires
__________.

• A. anomalous traffic signatures.
• B. relevant training data.
• C. a threat feed API.
• D. a multicore, multiprocessor system.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 157
During routine monitoring, a security analyst discovers several suspicious websites that are communicating with a local host. The analyst queries for IP 192.168.50.2 for a 24-hour period:

To further investigate, the analyst should request PCAP for SRC 192.168.50.2 and.

• A. DST 172.10.45.5.
• B. DST 138.10.2.5.
• C. DST 172.10.3.5.
• D. DST 138.10.25.5.
• E. DST 175.35.20.5.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 158
Which of the following describes the mam difference between supervised and unsupervised machine-learning algorithms that are used in cybersecurity applications?

• A. Supervised algorithms can be used to block attacks, while unsupervised algorithms cannot.
• B. Unsupervised algorithms produce more false positives. Than supervised algorithms.
• C. Supervised algorithms require security analyst feedback, while unsupervised algorithms do not.
• D. Unsupervised algorithms are not suitable for IDS systems, white supervised algorithms are

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 159
A security analyst is reviewing the following log entries to identify anomalous activity:

Which of the following attack types is occurring?

• A. Directory traversal
• B. Buffer overflow
• C. SQL injection
• D. Cross-site scripting

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 160
......

CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam (CS0-002) is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills and knowledge required for cybersecurity analysts to protect and defend their organization against cyber threats. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is designed for IT professionals who want to advance their career in cybersecurity and gain practical skills in risk management, threat detection, and response.

 

CS0-002 Dumps To Pass CompTIA Exam in 24 Hours - ExamsTorrent: https://www.examstorrent.com/CS0-002-exam-dumps-torrent.html

Buy Latest CS0-002 Exam Q&A PDF - One Year Free Update: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1XyNCuXFHv39m2IqH_ZsXLVONqhHnVhaQ