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CFR-410 Dumps 2025 - New CertNexus CFR-410 Exam Questions

CertNexus CFR-410 (CyberSec First Responder) certification exam is designed for professionals who are responsible for protecting their organization's networks and systems from cyber attacks. This vendor-neutral certification exam tests the skills and knowledge required to identify and respond to cyber threats, as well as to defend against future attacks. CFR-410 exam covers a range of topics, including incident response procedures, threat analysis, vulnerability management, and network security monitoring.

 

NEW QUESTION # 82
Which of the following sources is best suited for monitoring threats and vulnerabilities?

• A. QVVASP
• B. SANS
• C. CVE
• D. DISA STIG

Answer: C

Explanation:
CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) is the best source for monitoring threats and vulnerabilities. It is a publicly available database of known cybersecurity vulnerabilities and exposures, providing a standardized identifier for each vulnerability. This makes it a valuable resource for tracking, managing, and mitigating threats and vulnerabilities.

NEW QUESTION # 83
What is the BEST process to identify the vendors that will ensure protection and compliance with security and privacy laws?

• A. Risk assessment
• B. Vulnerability assessment
• C. Security and privacy review
• D. Penetration testing

Answer: A

Explanation:
A risk assessment is the best process to identify vendors that can ensure protection and compliance with security and privacy laws. This process involves evaluating the risks associated with different vendors, assessing their ability to meet security and privacy requirements, and determining how they manage data protection. It helps to ensure that vendors adhere to relevant laws and standards, minimizing the organization's exposure to security and privacy risks.

NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following is an essential component of a disaster recovery plan?

• A. Memorandums of agreement with vendors
• B. Complete hardware and software inventories
• C. A dedicated incident response team
• D. Product service agreements

Answer: B

Explanation:
A complete hardware and software inventory is essential for a disaster recovery plan because it allows an organization to quickly assess which systems and resources are required to restore operations in the event of a disaster. This inventory helps ensure that critical components are accounted for and can be replaced or restored as needed.

NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following are legally compliant forensics applications that will detect an alternative data stream (ADS) or a file with an incorrect file extension? (Choose two.)

• A. Write blocker
• B. EnCase
• C. Disk duplicator
• D. dd
• E. Forensic Toolkit (FTK)

Answer: B,E

NEW QUESTION # 86
An automatic vulnerability scan has been performed. Which is the next step of the vulnerability assessment process?

• A. Assessing identified exposures
• B. Hardening the infrastructure
• C. Generating reports
• D. Documenting exceptions

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 87
Recently, a cybersecurity research lab discovered that there is a hacking group focused on hacking into the computers of financial executives in Company A to sell the exfiltrated information to Company B.
Which of the
following threat motives does this MOST likely represent?

• A. Reputation/recognition
• B. Association/affiliation
• C. Desire for power
• D. Desire for financial gain

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 88
A common formula used to calculate risk is:+ Threats + Vulnerabilities = Risk. Which of the following represents the missing factor in this formula?

• A. Exploits
• B. Asset
• C. Security
• D. Probability

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following are common areas of vulnerabilities in a network switch? (Choose two.)

• A. Default port state
• B. Default protocols
• C. Default encryption
• D. Default IP address
• E. Default credentials

Answer: A,E

NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following plans helps IT security staff detect, respond to, and recover from a cyber attack?

• A. Incident Response Plan
• B. Disaster Recovery Plan
• C. Data Recovery Plan
• D. Business Impact Plan

Answer: A

Explanation:
An Incident Response Plan (IRP) helps IT security staff detect, respond to, and recover from a cyber attack. It outlines procedures for identifying and managing security incidents, minimizing damage, and restoring systems to normal operations. This plan is essential for an organization's ability to effectively handle cybersecurity threats.

NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following is a method of reconnaissance in which a ping is sent to a target with the expectation of receiving a response?

• A. Application enumeration
• B. Network enumeration
• C. Active scanning
• D. Passive scanning

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 92
A system administrator pulls records from a database that only requires the use of their general user vs.
domain admin account. Use of the general user account demonstrates which of the following concepts?

• A. Privileged Access Management
• B. Discretionary Access Control
• C. Separation of Duties
• D. Least Privilege

Answer: D

Explanation:
The principle of Least Privilege ensures that users are granted the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. In this case, using the general user account instead of a domain admin account demonstrates least privilege, as the administrator is only granted the necessary permissions to access the required records, rather than full administrative rights.

NEW QUESTION # 93
During a log review, an incident responder is attempting to process the proxy server's log files but finds that they are too large to be opened by any file viewer. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate technique to open and analyze these log files?

• A. tcpdump, indexing
• B. Notepad, searching
• C. PE Explorer, indexing
• D. Hex editor, searching

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following could be useful to an organization that wants to test its incident response procedures without risking any system downtime?

• A. Business continuity exercise
• B. Blue team exercise
• C. Tabletop exercise
• D. Red team exercise

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 95
A Linux administrator is trying to determine the character count on many log files. Which of the following command and flag combinations should the administrator use?

• A. wc -m
• B. grep -c
• C. tr -d
• D. uniq -c

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 96
During a security investigation, a suspicious Linux laptop is found in the server room. The laptop is processing information and indicating network activity. The investigator is preparing to launch an investigation to determine what is happening with this laptop. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate set of Linux commands that should be executed to conduct the investigation?

• A. lsof, chmod, nano, whois, chown, ls
• B. iperf, wget, traceroute, dc3dd, ls, whois
• C. lsof, ifconfig, who, ps, ls, tcpdump
• D. iperf, traceroute, whois, ls, chown, cat

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 97
Which of the following would MOST likely make a Windows workstation on a corporate network vulnerable to remote exploitation?

• A. Disabling Windows Updates
• B. Enabling Remote Desktop
• C. Enabling Remote Registry
• D. Disabling Windows Firewall

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 98
Which part of a proactive approach to system security is responsible for identifying all possible threats to a system to be categorized and analyzed?

• A. Threat modeling
• B. Threat hunting
• C. Threat intelligence
• D. Threat assessment

Answer: A

Explanation:
Threat modeling is the process of identifying, categorizing, and analyzing potential threats to a system. It helps organizations understand the security risks they face and allows them to design controls to mitigate those risks proactively.

NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following is a social engineering tactic in which an attacker engages in temptation or promise of a good or service?

• A. Pretexting
• B. Phishing
• C. Vishing
• D. Baiting

Answer: D

Explanation:
Baiting is a social engineering tactic in which an attacker entices the target with the promise of something desirable, such as free software or a service, in order to lure them into taking an action that compromises their security, such as downloading malicious software or providing sensitive information.

NEW QUESTION # 100
When performing an investigation, a security analyst needs to extract information from text files in a Windows operating system. Which of the following commands should the security analyst use?

• A. sigverif
• B. awk
• C. grep
• D. findstr

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 101
Vulnerability scanners generally classify vulnerabilities by which of the following? (Choose two.)

• A. Zero days
• B. Exploit range
• C. Severity level
• D. Costs
• E. Threat modeling

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Severity level: Vulnerability scanners classify vulnerabilities based on their severity (e.g., critical, high, medium, low) to help prioritize remediation efforts.
Zero days: Vulnerability scanners also identify "zero-day" vulnerabilities, which are previously unknown vulnerabilities that have no known fix or patch at the time of discovery.

NEW QUESTION # 102
What is the primary purpose of the "information security incident triage and processing function" in the (CSIRT) Computer Security Incident Response Team Services Framework?

• A. To accept or receive information about an information security incident, as reported from constituents or third parties.
• B. To analyze and gain an understanding of a confirmed information security incident.
• C. To receive and process reports of potential information security incidents from constituents, Information Security Event Management services, or third parties.
• D. To initially review, categorize, prioritize, and process a reported information security incident.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The information security incident triage and processing function in the CSIRT framework is responsible for the initial review, categorization, prioritization, and processing of reported security incidents. This ensures that incidents are handled promptly and efficiently, with appropriate resources allocated based on their severity and impact.

NEW QUESTION # 103
What are three benefits of security logging and monitoring? (Choos)

• A. Penetration testinge three.)
• B. Data collection
• C. Satisfying regulatory compliance requirements
• D. Feeding intrusion detection systems
• E. Forensic analysis and investigations

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:
Satisfying regulatory compliance requirements: Many regulatory frameworks require organizations to implement logging and monitoring to ensure compliance with data protection and security standards.
Data collection: Security logging and monitoring collect valuable data that can help detect and analyze security events.
Forensic analysis and investigations: Logs provide detailed records that can be used for investigating security incidents, performing forensic analysis, and identifying the cause of an attack.

NEW QUESTION # 104
The "right to be forgotten" is considered a core tenet of which of the following privacy-focused acts or regulations?

• A. GDPR
• B. PPA
• C. HIPPA
• D. COPPA
• E. CCPA

Answer: A

Explanation:
The "right to be forgotten" is a core tenet of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which is a privacy and data protection law in the European Union. This right allows individuals to request the deletion of their personal data from organizations' records under certain conditions, ensuring privacy and control over their personal information.

NEW QUESTION # 105
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